Originally Posted by Spiritwalker
ok, so if I interpret passage "x".. one way.. and you interpret the same passage a different way.. who is to say which is more correct? Even Biblical scholars and leaders of various churches can't agree.
If I say.. "Thou shall not kill"... means.. no killing.. not even state sactioned killing... and you say.. "Thou shall not kill".. doesn't include times of war.. is that you or I fidning a way to "squirm"?
You must interpret it in the historical context and the original language used. You will NEVER come up with a truly accurate theology based on any English translation of the Bible.
The Hebrew word translated as "kill" in that commandment is actually more specific that our English word "kill." The Hebrew word "rasah" used in this context specifically refers to what we would call "premeditated murder." Thus, killing in warfare and executing criminals do not fall under that category. The word "rasah" can also refer to unintentional killing, or manslaughter, but the commandment "Thou shall not kill" is not the proper context for that interpretation. This is a better example of the clumsy, vague and imprecise nature of the English language than anything else. Many of the more modern English translations of the Bible correct the translation with the more accurate "Thou shall not murder" translation of that commandment.